Monday, November 9, 2009

Male Homosexuality= bad, Female homosexuality=ok

I’ve come to a conclusion- the Bible does not have anything to say about lesbian relationships. While it does talk about homosexual male relationships, I have found nothing about homosexual female relationships. Therefore, I conclude that lesbian relationships are acceptable based on what the Bible says.

Okay, not really. But I have noticed that when the Bible is talking about male homosexual relationships there are two big pieces of it: first that the acts being condemned are sexual and not relational- it’s about having sex, not about having a relationship. In other words, it would seem that what is actually being condemned is essentially a homosexual equivalent to heterosexual adulterous sex. Everything I have read both in the Bible and in other sources leads to this conclusion. That does not mean that the Bible doesn’t also condemn homosexual sex within a monogomous relationship, but there are no homosexual relationships spoken about, just the sexual aspect of homosexuality. The second big piece is that it’s always about men not having sex with other men as they would with a woman. This is where my tongue-in-cheek opening comes from. No matter how certain you are about men not having sex with other men, I have yet to find any comment about women having sex with other women. I find references to women not having sex with animals, but nothing about two women. Which makes me ask the question: if the issue with men having sex with other men has to do with not penetrating improperly, does the reasoning also apply to women who don’t have this particular issue?

I ask this question, but I don’t really mean it. I think it’s safe to say that the male focus of the Bible is cultural and that we need to realize that what applies to men in the Bible applies to people. But I do wonder why the focus is totally on male homosexual relationships. Is it because women didn’t have sex with other women when the Bible was written? Is it because the authors knew only men would be able to read what they wrote? Is it because men were so dominate over women that a woman wouldn’t be allowed to do anything a man couldn’t?

In case you’re concerned, I’m not saying that I am leaning toward using this as an actual argument. I’m certainly no where near being ready to say “this is what I believe…” whether it be anything written above or something totally different. I just had this response and although I immediately dismissed it I wondered if anyone could shed some light on it.

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